How to fix the family

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  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
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    Secondly, the sin in Sodom and Gamorah is actually not sexual in nature. They were breaking the rules of hospitality. That being said, they were wicked and sinful because they did not bow to God. They had gods and beliefs of their own so God gave them a death sentence.

    God told Abraham that He was going to find out how sinful the Sodomites were, and if He found at least 10 good Sodomites, He would spare the city for their sakes. He sent two angels to Lot's house, Abraham's brother, and disguised them as men. The bible states, as I cited earlier, that ALL the men of Sodom came to Lot's house and demanded that he send the visitors out so that they could have sex with them. How is demanding Lot to allow them to gang-rape the visitors NOT a sexual sin?
  • doorki
    doorki Posts: 2,611 Member
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    Secondly, the sin in Sodom and Gamorah is actually not sexual in nature. They were breaking the rules of hospitality. That being said, they were wicked and sinful because they did not bow to God. They had gods and beliefs of their own so God gave them a death sentence.

    God told Abraham that He was going to find out how sinful the Sodomites were, and if He found at least 10 good Sodomites, He would spare the city for their sakes. He sent two angels to Lot's house, Abraham's brother, and disguised them as men. The bible states, as I cited earlier, that ALL the men of Sodom came to Lot's house and demanded that he send the visitors out so that they could have sex with them. How is demanding Lot to allow them to gang-rape the visitors NOT a sexual sin?

    Because the translation of the word "know" means multiple things and of all it's appearances in the OT there is a very small percentage that have a sexual connotation.
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
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    Secondly, the sin in Sodom and Gamorah is actually not sexual in nature. They were breaking the rules of hospitality. That being said, they were wicked and sinful because they did not bow to God. They had gods and beliefs of their own so God gave them a death sentence.

    God told Abraham that He was going to find out how sinful the Sodomites were, and if He found at least 10 good Sodomites, He would spare the city for their sakes. He sent two angels to Lot's house, Abraham's brother, and disguised them as men. The bible states, as I cited earlier, that ALL the men of Sodom came to Lot's house and demanded that he send the visitors out so that they could have sex with them. How is demanding Lot to allow them to gang-rape the visitors NOT a sexual sin?

    Because the translation of the word "know" means multiple things and of all it's appearances in the OT there is a very small percentage that have a sexual connotation.

    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
  • m_a_b
    m_a_b Posts: 71 Member
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    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
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    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
  • m_a_b
    m_a_b Posts: 71 Member
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    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"
  • doorki
    doorki Posts: 2,611 Member
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    Secondly, the sin in Sodom and Gamorah is actually not sexual in nature. They were breaking the rules of hospitality. That being said, they were wicked and sinful because they did not bow to God. They had gods and beliefs of their own so God gave them a death sentence.

    God told Abraham that He was going to find out how sinful the Sodomites were, and if He found at least 10 good Sodomites, He would spare the city for their sakes. He sent two angels to Lot's house, Abraham's brother, and disguised them as men. The bible states, as I cited earlier, that ALL the men of Sodom came to Lot's house and demanded that he send the visitors out so that they could have sex with them. How is demanding Lot to allow them to gang-rape the visitors NOT a sexual sin?

    Because the translation of the word "know" means multiple things and of all it's appearances in the OT there is a very small percentage that have a sexual connotation.

    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.

    The word "sex" is not in the original text. It is "so we may know them." and the word for know is usually not of a sexual connotation.
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
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    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
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    Secondly, the sin in Sodom and Gamorah is actually not sexual in nature. They were breaking the rules of hospitality. That being said, they were wicked and sinful because they did not bow to God. They had gods and beliefs of their own so God gave them a death sentence.

    God told Abraham that He was going to find out how sinful the Sodomites were, and if He found at least 10 good Sodomites, He would spare the city for their sakes. He sent two angels to Lot's house, Abraham's brother, and disguised them as men. The bible states, as I cited earlier, that ALL the men of Sodom came to Lot's house and demanded that he send the visitors out so that they could have sex with them. How is demanding Lot to allow them to gang-rape the visitors NOT a sexual sin?

    Because the translation of the word "know" means multiple things and of all it's appearances in the OT there is a very small percentage that have a sexual connotation.

    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.

    The word "sex" is not in the original text. It is "so we may know them." and the word for know is usually not of a sexual connotation.

    Fair enough. It does say "so we may know them" in the King James version, but remember that the translators of that era saw sex as a taboo. The name of the city Sodom is the root word for sodomy, which means "anal sex." Why would that word be derived from the city's name if they were not practicing in sexual deviancy of an anal nature?
  • m_a_b
    m_a_b Posts: 71 Member
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    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?

    Is that not the defence put forward by every rapist?
  • doorki
    doorki Posts: 2,611 Member
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    Secondly, the sin in Sodom and Gamorah is actually not sexual in nature. They were breaking the rules of hospitality. That being said, they were wicked and sinful because they did not bow to God. They had gods and beliefs of their own so God gave them a death sentence.

    God told Abraham that He was going to find out how sinful the Sodomites were, and if He found at least 10 good Sodomites, He would spare the city for their sakes. He sent two angels to Lot's house, Abraham's brother, and disguised them as men. The bible states, as I cited earlier, that ALL the men of Sodom came to Lot's house and demanded that he send the visitors out so that they could have sex with them. How is demanding Lot to allow them to gang-rape the visitors NOT a sexual sin?

    Because the translation of the word "know" means multiple things and of all it's appearances in the OT there is a very small percentage that have a sexual connotation.

    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.

    The word "sex" is not in the original text. It is "so we may know them." and the word for know is usually not of a sexual connotation.

    Fair enough. It does say "so we may know them" in the King James version, but remember that the translators of that era saw sex as a taboo. The name of the city Sodom is the root word for sodomy, which means "anal sex." Why would that word be derived from the city's name if they were not practicing in sexual deviancy of an anal nature?

    Because sodomy is named after the mistranslation of this story.
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
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    Alright... at this point, I'm just going to walk away. You guys are just mincing words and splitting hairs.

    You are welcome to believe God is evil if that makes you feel better.
  • doorki
    doorki Posts: 2,611 Member
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    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?

    The focus was more on preserving the bloodline (That which eventually led to Jesus) than the daughters being concerned about losing their virginity.
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
    Options
    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?

    The focus was more on preserving the bloodline (That which eventually led to Jesus) than the daughters being concerned about losing their virginity.

    Ugh! Quit sucking me back in.

    Jesus' blood line goes back to Abraham, not Lot.
  • doorki
    doorki Posts: 2,611 Member
    Options
    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?

    The focus was more on preserving the bloodline (That which eventually led to Jesus) than the daughters being concerned about losing their virginity.

    Ugh! Quit sucking me back in.

    Jesus' blood line goes back to Abraham, not Lot.

    Jesus is a descendant of Lot through David's Great-Grandmother Ruth who was the descendant of Lot's son Moab, who was the oldest daughter's child.
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
    Options
    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?

    The focus was more on preserving the bloodline (That which eventually led to Jesus) than the daughters being concerned about losing their virginity.

    Ugh! Quit sucking me back in.

    Jesus' blood line goes back to Abraham, not Lot.

    Jesus is a descendant of Lot through David's Great-Grandmother Ruth who was the descendant of Lot's son Moab, who was the oldest daughter's child.

    Relationship to Jesus and whatever purpose that Lot's daughters had doesn't change the fact that they sinned by committing incest.
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
    Options
    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?

    Is that not the defence put forward by every rapist?

    Look, it is common knowledge that it was socially acceptable for women to be treated like the property of their fathers and husbands all they way up until the 19th century. Lot was offering up his property in trade to spare the angels (disguised as men) that God had sent to visit Lot. When Lot did that, the angels ordered Lot to get his family out of the city and proceeded to destroy it with fire.
  • doorki
    doorki Posts: 2,611 Member
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    Okay... but the word "sex" has always meant just that. And again... gang-rape... pretty sure that's an evil that would be considered sin.
    Query - why was it evil to gang rape men but not women?

    No one said it wasn't. But gang-rape of women isn't mentioned to the best of my knowledge. There were punishments if a man raped a woman and did not take care of her, i.e. marrying her and supporting her.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?

    The focus was more on preserving the bloodline (That which eventually led to Jesus) than the daughters being concerned about losing their virginity.

    Ugh! Quit sucking me back in.

    Jesus' blood line goes back to Abraham, not Lot.

    Jesus is a descendant of Lot through David's Great-Grandmother Ruth who was the descendant of Lot's son Moab, who was the oldest daughter's child.

    Relationship to Jesus and whatever purpose that Lot's daughters had doesn't change the fact that they sinned by committing incest.

    Wait....so....it was okay for them to be used as a possible bargaining chip because they were going to sin in the future?
  • UsedToBeHusky
    UsedToBeHusky Posts: 15,229 Member
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    Wait....so....it was okay for them to be used as a possible bargaining chip because they were going to sin in the future?

    No... it was okay for them to be used as a bargaining chip because it was socially accepted in that era that women were the property of their father.
  • doorki
    doorki Posts: 2,611 Member
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    Wait....so....it was okay for them to be used as a possible bargaining chip because they were going to sin in the future?

    No... it was okay for them to be used as a bargaining chip because it was socially accepted in that era that women were the property of their father.
    Genesis 19:8 - "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don't do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof"

    And those same two daughters intoxicated and seduced their father a few chapters later because they feared they would never lose their virginity and have children. What makes you think those two daughters weren't willing, but couldn't find any men that would have sex with them in a city named Sodom, a name that eventually evolved into the word "sodomy"?

    But, in the above you implied it.....