Is that 800 gross burned, which means it includes what you would have burned anyway?

Subtract your RMR calorie burn for that time (which is higher than BMR), is it still as low?

Is that 800 calorie burn correct, or possibly inflated anyway?

Is BMR based on bodyfat %, or the inflated Mifflin or Harris BMR when overweight?

Do you have any other 24 hr periods in the week where your literal intake does not batch your BMR burn for that period of time?
Your body doesn't know midnight as a cutoff for how to use calories.
Personal opinion since no studies indicate 1 day below BMR is a problem.

i need some guidance regarding this. please can someone point me in the right direction.

so my bmr is 2072 and tdee cut value(-20%) is 2572 . some days i burn for example 800 cals. so 2572-800=1772! now this net value has gone below my bmr. should i eat back a few cals to match my bmr or should i not? because as discussed on the eat more weigh less videos on youtube i need to eat my bmr if i go below it!

i need some guidance regarding this. please can someone point me in the right direction. thank you

Hello, I am going to attempt to answer your question without answering it with nothing but a whole bunch of questions. And, maybe it will help?
I do the TDEE method. I do TDEE-20% or sometimes TDEE-25% and it has helped me. When you calculate your TDEE Total it includes exercise..... (if you accounted for exercise when you did your calculations) so you do not eat your exercise calories back. Because they are configured in the equation all ready. Here is a link to a discussion on this very topic. It has help me and I hope you find it helpful as well? Good Luck!

https://www.myfitnesspal.com/topics/show/1029971-tdee-20

Sadly doesn't answer his specific question, which is specific to a single point in this group's method. By his statements, he already understood your answer and was applying it.

My questions are to highlight that single point is very questionable to worry about.